I have utilities data from an CBC/HB study that included discrete price levels, four four-level attributes, and two binary attributes (Features X and Y: Yes/No) and a dual-response purchase/would not purchase question.
I have uploaded the data to the Online market simulator and run RFC, scale set to 1.0. In order to compare a "base" product with certain attribute levels and without Feature X at price 1 (not a tested price level) to an "enhanced" product that is identical to "base" except that it includes Feature X at price 2 (a price higher than price 1), I set price as a continuous variable and interpolated the price points I needed. I run the RFC with the following scenarios:
Scenario 1: Base at $P1 vs Enhanced at $P2, None UNCHECKED, such that SOP is equivalent.
Scenario 2: Same as S1 but with None CHECKED. None is over 80% SOP and product SOPs are not equivalent.
Scenario 3: None CHECKED, Base at $P1, Enhanced at $P3 such that SOPs are equivalent. None still over 80%, but product SOPs are equivalent.
Questions:
1. For this data, should I run RFC with or without None?
2. If WITHOUT, is the difference between $P2 and $P1 properly interpreted to be the price premium associated with Feature X?
3. If WITH, what is the interpretation of the None SOP, and what is the proper interpretation of $P3 in this context?
Thanks SO MUCH in advance, Sawtooth braintrust!